Don’t people know the difference between “loose” and “lose”?

Why do people write “loose” instead of “lose”? The words do not even have the same pronounciation, so they don’t even have the same excuse that they have with “to” and “too” or “their” and “they’re.”

Now that I think about it, I don’t think I’ve seen anybody write “lose” when he or she meant to write “loose.” Why is this error asymmetrical?

Edit: Added missing quote.

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2 Responses

  1. Probably because they look at “lose” and think it can’t be spelled like that since a word spelled like that ought to rhyme with hose and nose.

  2. Interesting point. That never crossed my mind.

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